Inheritance I: Response to Student Questions #6

 

How are the ways that Shakespeare’s inversions of conventions or tropes effect dramatic writing as a whole afterwards? Would alterations to the conventions become new conventions themselves? How much of what I know about “what drama is” is because of the ways that Shakespeare worked inside, outside, and between genres?

If there are so many other similar to their time writers in the 16th-17th centuries, why is Shakespeare the most studied and well-known currently to us? All of his work is influenced by other writers previous to him. I remember being taught in another course that he basically stole the entire idea of Macbeth, including the actual name of the main character, from another author. Even his style of writing, as explained in the lesson, was of his time and nothing extraordinary. Why was Shakespeare’s work believed to “be understood what it was to be English” or civilized? Why were the other playwrights, who were important as well, not studied after their deaths? Shakespeare copied other playwright’s ideas, and used language that most other writers did as well during his time. So what makes him more important, more studied, and more famous than any other writer of that period or even ever in the history of English?

Is it possible that overtime and as this play, and others, have been continuously
preformed that there has been a loss or gain of some aspects in regards to stage business and physical comedy?

What do you think about the idea that one-day people might be interested in reading movie scripts, and I don’t mean novels, from our favorite movies? Would this be as interesting to future generations as Shakespeare is to us? If so, what screenwriter do you think would be the most fascinating and valuable to future generations.

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